Originally posted 2017-08-05 13:45:43.
There has been been a movement to separate so-called homosexual transsexuals from non-homosexual transsexuals. This was described by Dr Ray Blanchard in the 1980a and 90s.1 According to Blanchard, homosexual transsexuals or HSTS were motivated towards feminine appearance by a desire to attract men while non-homosexuals were motivated by Autogynephilia, (AGP) which was ‘a man’s arousal at the thought or image of himself as a woman.’ These two conditions, he said, were quite separate. He even asserted that females could not be autogynephilic, saying that ‘you have to be gynephilic (attracted to femininity) to be autogynephilic’. This implied that females could not be attracted to other females, which I think lesbians might disagree with. He produced statistical data which he claimed proved his point I would disagree.

Blanchard was wrong and mea culpa, in accepting his conclusions, so was I. After years of research and hundreds of interviews I can say that all male desire to appear to be female or at least feminine is provoked by autogynephilia. Every case. Blanchard had described four forms this could take, being transvestic, anatomical, behavioural and physiological, with the first most prevalent. Later, Bailey and Lawrence added another, interpersonal. All agreed that these could be present in combination. Now these were all proposed to be variations of autogynephilia, but if all of them are valid, and perhaps they might be, why is homosexuality not included? How is an androphilic male who presents as a girl any different from a gynephilic male who does the same? This sound like special pleading. Indeed what if homosexuality were the driving force behind all forms of male transsexualism? Let me explain.

Continue reading “Gender Identity does not exist: Explaining Transgender 3”
- https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/2794988/ [↩]



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